I just posted this comment over on Triablogue (see: this post) and thought I’d repost it here too. Note: The last highlight of the term “paradox” is explained by the fact that the original post this comment was written for was about Paradox in Christian Theology and most (if not all) of the supporters are, naturally, idelogical descendents of Van Til. The person who responded under the handle “Ghost of Van Til” is really a Clarkian. Unfortunately, the Clarkians who responded do not make Clark look very good at all.
I should point out that I do have a lot of respect for Gordon Clark (apparently, I have more respect for him than his defenders over on Triablogue do). I enjoy many of his books, and even have his Logic textbook. However, when it comes to the disagreements between Clark and VanTil, I’ve found myself mostly on VanTil’s side.
So with that in mind…
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As I read through these comments, I saw this quote and was struck by a few thoughts.
Ghost said:
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You earlier said that you recognized an epistemic distinction between God’s Word and all other words. If so, then why do you call both “knowledge”?
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My first thought was “Probably for the same reason you use the word ‘word’ for both God’s Word and human words.”
After all, when you think about it typologically and from the aspect of imaging, it’s not at all unusual to realize that human knowledge is typed after divine knowledge, just as all our attributes are.
As way of explanation: God exists. People exist. Obviously, this is not to say that people exist in an identical manner to how God exists; but it does not make it any less true to say that both God and people share a common attribute: existence.
Here’s the distinction. God’s attribute of existence is the archtype for our own existence. While God’s existence is self-existence, our existence is dependent upon God’s existence. God’s existence is infinite and universal; ours is limited and localized. God’s existence occurs independent of our existence; our existence is dependent upon His. In God, existence is ultimately defined; in man, our existence is imaged after God’s, and thusly defining “existence” requires us to start with God’s existence. Our existence is meaningless without God’s existence being presupposed.
The same is true of power. God is omnipotent; we have limited power. We do not have “no power” for we are able to do things within our limited sphere of influence, just as God is able to do things in his unlimited sphere of influence. Again, God’s power is the archtype for our power. His is infinite and universal; ours is finite and local. His is independent; our is dependent upon Him. Thus, God’s power must be presupposed in order for us to define what our power is.
Now back to the point of the quote. The same is true of knowledge. God’s knowledge is the archtype for all human knowledge. God’s knowledge is infinite and universal, while ours is neither. God’s knowledge is eternal while ours is temporal. God’s knowledge is independent of us; ours is dependent upon Him. Again, speaking of human knowledge is meaningless unless we presuppose God’s knowledge. Without God’s knowledge, we cannot speak of man’s knowledge, since man’s knowledge is patterned on God’s.
Why is it that we can use the terms “existence”, “power”, and “knowledge” when refering to people even when the term does not mean the exact same thing when used for God? Because these terms are ultimately defined by God in the archtypical sense regardless of what men think, believe, hallucinate, etc.
We, being created in the image of God, image these attributes in a finite way–and because even non-believers who have never read Scripture are still created in the image of God, this seems to be a death blow to the Scripturalist concept.
Our imaging of these attributes is not identical to the original, but because we do image them, the definition of our capabilities is linked to the same capability in God. Again, this is due to our creation in the image of God; it was true before God revealed anything in Scripture that man was created in His image. This is a universal truth of our being, and it does not require revelation for us to know this. Indeed, this is the very basis for Paul’s claims in Romans 1 that the unregenerate are without excuse because they KNOW the things of God.
And there is more we can press logically from this concept. I would go so far as to argue that this imaging is the very foundation for Language in the first place, and thus Scripture itself (being comprised of Language) presupposes this imaging. Without the linkage between God and His image in man, all terms (at least relating to attributes) are meaningless. Indeed, the reason God can reveal anything to man is because God created man in His image.
In summary, to define an attribute requires two things: 1) God’s already having that attribute, and 2) an actual link between that attribute and our own attributes. This linkage is NOT a 1:1 correlation, but it must be sufficiently similar in order for meaning to occur.
To deny this is ultimately to make God so completely “other” that there is no correlation between God and His creation, and makes Scripture itself meaningless for all. It is nothing less than turning the phrase, “In the image of God He created them” on its head. In the final analysis, to argue that these terms have no correlation is to argue that God cannot speak to man at all, for there is no longer any way for God to relate to man.
And if God cannot speak in Scripture then the slipperly slope finally ends in realizing that Jesus Christ Himself could not reveal the Father in any meaningful sense. The very Word of God, in other words, is just as meaningless as human language is if you deny this linkage.
Certainly it sounds like we are offering praise to God when we say: “God’s knowledge is so higher than ours that we ought not use the same term for His knowledge and ours.” But in reality, this is the false foundation that leads to the complete inability of revelation to occur. In short, to hold this view (as the Scripturalists do) is to deny Scripture any meaning; and again, is ultimately to deny that Christ really did reveal the Father.
Granted, I doubt Ghost has thought this far and I doubt he would actually take the step in saying Christ could not reveal the Father…but all this means is that he must embrace the…*gasp*…”paradox” within his own belief system!!!






